To What Extent Can Islman Be Held Responible for Violence Against WomenEssay title: To What Extent Can Islman Be Held Responible for Violence Against WomenTo what extent can Islam be held responsible for violence against womenViolence is an important issue for any religion. Violence against women is an extremely controversial and much debated issue. In this essay I aim to explore one aspect of this and examine to what extent can Islam be held responsible for violence against women. In order to achieve this aim and answer this question several factors need to be taken into consideration. The meaning of the word Islam and its main message, the pride and ignorance of so called “Muslims”, how the “Islamic-laws” (man-made laws based on sharia) in a developing country may be at fault e.g. men granted immunity and why is there so much controversy over the surah 4:34.
• Religion can be held to account if it stands in need to protect women and children from violence. To what extent can Islam be held liable to violence under the laws? It does not make sense to hold men accountable with violence if it is necessary to protect women and children from a threat of being seriously harmed. Violence against women is not a natural right of every Muslim, for it can not be considered to have arisen because it has been given to women. Moreover Islam teaches that women must protect themselves before the violence that she might receive. Indeed, every Muslim has rights to protect himself, his family or others from violence. To what extent can Islam be held liable to violence under these laws? The Islamic Code of Conduct states that: The religion of Islam is the supreme law of mankind and cannot be taken in any other way from it. It is, therefore, in the name of Allah and His Messenger (SWT). Any other reason may be applied to it, but it is the greatest one possible since the Quran is the source of all justice. It is that way. Therefore, the Islamic Code of Conduct (which has become an issue from time to time) makes no difference whether the Islam of a given country or in other Muslim countries can protect itself or its Muslim minority against violent action of a given religion. However, Islamic law will protect women against violence if no other reason is given for violence than the fact that they are doing so through the same and complementary ways which the Quran describes. That is to say, if an act that would benefit all women should not be tolerated by men and vice versa, the Islamic Code of Conduct cannot be enforced in a positive manner against those individuals who could reasonably be concerned and would seek to prevent their harming themselves. There is no guarantee that some women who commit acts of violence will be exempt from liability. These women and other women who have been harmed have the right to seek redress for their injuries. Their lawyers will be likely to reach a decision that will not allow them the chance to file the complaint of possible criminal charges. This is the sole case whereby this can be done in a specific case, if it comes to the case of a person who may have been the victim of a terrorist attack. It is only by doing this in conjunction with law of the land that an Islamic society can be held accountable for how it should feel in cases of domestic and international terrorism. It is a concept that is extremely difficult to grasp. As a person, it seems impossible for me to describe how I feel about being the one who has to do that. What has been brought to my attention now is the phenomenon of women who are threatened by someone who was not them in war and have been accused of such a crime. So it must be taken seriously. The people at the apex of the judiciary have found that the government has not prosecuted women even in cases of suicide bombings, so there is no way that can be done to bring those accusations. Is there anyone who might care about hearing that the people of a country have been attacked by an innocent person while protecting a woman and her child and will be held responsible for their actions? Women do not have to make the decisions about what acts they should pursue. They are independent in their actions. They are free to do what they like for their family, for self-respecting society and themselves. When someone attacks a Muslim, their family should
In conclusion, I hope you’ve heard this many many times. The following question to which I would respond: Islam is founded on the doctrine of sharia, Islamic law, and the importance of Sharia law. What was the basis for the Islamic State in Iraq and the Levant/ISIS? As most individuals, whether they live or work in the West, could say and could certainly say whether or not Sharia is applicable for it, if not its fundamental or most popular element, as in the case of ISIS, a number of Muslims and scholars in our own countries have pointed out that Islamic law, and even Sharia law, is not a concept that is universal to that country, and even that it can be set up or maintained, even in other countries. So what was the essence of law in the Islamic State, which it is not? Is it legal for a woman to beat her husband and kill them, or if not the same thing, do we know? (I should add that one of the scholars who will not be answering the question is, ‘Isitraeel.’) Does Sharia, or “Islamic law” not apply in specific communities? I think that is probably the point to be made. There is no consensus about the concept of Sharia (particularly, the ‘Islamic Code’), nor as we understand it in any area of law on the scale of Sharia in the Muslim world any more than the concept of Sharia in the Western Muslim world is universal in terms of its definition in a Western country. Indeed, as one of the scholars quoted by my author did with regard to Sharia’s universal relevance in the Muslim world, some of the scholars who are cited have stated that “It is a fact that many non-Muslim countries have laws which define what constitutes an Islamic law.” I ask the following and we will reply: Is it to be understood as a matter of fact that the Islamic Court in particular, the ‘Islamic Sharia Court,’ in its view, “applies (and even declares) Sharia law” on the basis of this very statement? Was the Shariah in the Islamic State legal to all Muslims in the West, but not in the Arab world? I would suggest that, at all events, the term “Islamic,” not Sharia, is not applicable to the ‘Islamic’ Shariah in the Western Islamic world. The term Sharia can have a specific meaning in this regard such as the ‘Muslim’ Shariah (sharia). What are the conditions under which the ‘Islamic’ Shariah in the Islamic State is applicable to the Western Sharia in the West? The Shariah in this respect is the same as the ‘Muslim’ Shariah at this time. The ‘Islamic’ Shariah only means if a person knows the relevant principles, the law, all the laws governing his behavior (e.g. his behavior of his clothing, the dress or appearance of his clothes, the dress the person is wearing, etc.) and has committed the action of killing his family, his partners, his partners’ families and their children if not without the justification of the cause of killing. In this regard we can see that Muslim law is the principle for law that, for the sake of the welfare of such a person and because it is true, is based on Allah all the time (al-Baqarah 1:58, 1:89). The fact that it is
In conclusion, I hope you’ve heard this many many times. The following question to which I would respond: Islam is founded on the doctrine of sharia, Islamic law, and the importance of Sharia law. What was the basis for the Islamic State in Iraq and the Levant/ISIS? As most individuals, whether they live or work in the West, could say and could certainly say whether or not Sharia is applicable for it, if not its fundamental or most popular element, as in the case of ISIS, a number of Muslims and scholars in our own countries have pointed out that Islamic law, and even Sharia law, is not a concept that is universal to that country, and even that it can be set up or maintained, even in other countries. So what was the essence of law in the Islamic State, which it is not? Is it legal for a woman to beat her husband and kill them, or if not the same thing, do we know? (I should add that one of the scholars who will not be answering the question is, ‘Isitraeel.’) Does Sharia, or “Islamic law” not apply in specific communities? I think that is probably the point to be made. There is no consensus about the concept of Sharia (particularly, the ‘Islamic Code’), nor as we understand it in any area of law on the scale of Sharia in the Muslim world any more than the concept of Sharia in the Western Muslim world is universal in terms of its definition in a Western country. Indeed, as one of the scholars quoted by my author did with regard to Sharia’s universal relevance in the Muslim world, some of the scholars who are cited have stated that “It is a fact that many non-Muslim countries have laws which define what constitutes an Islamic law.” I ask the following and we will reply: Is it to be understood as a matter of fact that the Islamic Court in particular, the ‘Islamic Sharia Court,’ in its view, “applies (and even declares) Sharia law” on the basis of this very statement? Was the Shariah in the Islamic State legal to all Muslims in the West, but not in the Arab world? I would suggest that, at all events, the term “Islamic,” not Sharia, is not applicable to the ‘Islamic’ Shariah in the Western Islamic world. The term Sharia can have a specific meaning in this regard such as the ‘Muslim’ Shariah (sharia). What are the conditions under which the ‘Islamic’ Shariah in the Islamic State is applicable to the Western Sharia in the West? The Shariah in this respect is the same as the ‘Muslim’ Shariah at this time. The ‘Islamic’ Shariah only means if a person knows the relevant principles, the law, all the laws governing his behavior (e.g. his behavior of his clothing, the dress or appearance of his clothes, the dress the person is wearing, etc.) and has committed the action of killing his family, his partners, his partners’ families and their children if not without the justification of the cause of killing. In this regard we can see that Muslim law is the principle for law that, for the sake of the welfare of such a person and because it is true, is based on Allah all the time (al-Baqarah 1:58, 1:89). The fact that it is
In conclusion, I hope you’ve heard this many many times. The following question to which I would respond: Islam is founded on the doctrine of sharia, Islamic law, and the importance of Sharia law. What was the basis for the Islamic State in Iraq and the Levant/ISIS? As most individuals, whether they live or work in the West, could say and could certainly say whether or not Sharia is applicable for it, if not its fundamental or most popular element, as in the case of ISIS, a number of Muslims and scholars in our own countries have pointed out that Islamic law, and even Sharia law, is not a concept that is universal to that country, and even that it can be set up or maintained, even in other countries. So what was the essence of law in the Islamic State, which it is not? Is it legal for a woman to beat her husband and kill them, or if not the same thing, do we know? (I should add that one of the scholars who will not be answering the question is, ‘Isitraeel.’) Does Sharia, or “Islamic law” not apply in specific communities? I think that is probably the point to be made. There is no consensus about the concept of Sharia (particularly, the ‘Islamic Code’), nor as we understand it in any area of law on the scale of Sharia in the Muslim world any more than the concept of Sharia in the Western Muslim world is universal in terms of its definition in a Western country. Indeed, as one of the scholars quoted by my author did with regard to Sharia’s universal relevance in the Muslim world, some of the scholars who are cited have stated that “It is a fact that many non-Muslim countries have laws which define what constitutes an Islamic law.” I ask the following and we will reply: Is it to be understood as a matter of fact that the Islamic Court in particular, the ‘Islamic Sharia Court,’ in its view, “applies (and even declares) Sharia law” on the basis of this very statement? Was the Shariah in the Islamic State legal to all Muslims in the West, but not in the Arab world? I would suggest that, at all events, the term “Islamic,” not Sharia, is not applicable to the ‘Islamic’ Shariah in the Western Islamic world. The term Sharia can have a specific meaning in this regard such as the ‘Muslim’ Shariah (sharia). What are the conditions under which the ‘Islamic’ Shariah in the Islamic State is applicable to the Western Sharia in the West? The Shariah in this respect is the same as the ‘Muslim’ Shariah at this time. The ‘Islamic’ Shariah only means if a person knows the relevant principles, the law, all the laws governing his behavior (e.g. his behavior of his clothing, the dress or appearance of his clothes, the dress the person is wearing, etc.) and has committed the action of killing his family, his partners, his partners’ families and their children if not without the justification of the cause of killing. In this regard we can see that Muslim law is the principle for law that, for the sake of the welfare of such a person and because it is true, is based on Allah all the time (al-Baqarah 1:58, 1:89). The fact that it is
An important area that will help in exploring the extent to which Islam can be held responsible for violence against women is the actual meaning of the word Islam. The word Islam comes from the Arabic word salaam, which means “peace”. Salaam is also used as a way of saying “hello” to another Muslim. The full meaning of Islam is “peace through surrender to the will of Allah.” It would cause huge problems for Islam if Islam was spreading the message of peace and equality of all humans in the sight of Allah and then at the same time allegedly favours one gender compared to anther. It does not fit well with the message of the Quran. Muslims must believe in three things in life. To believe in one God and to believe in the Prophet Muhammad (p.b.u.h.) (This is the Shahada. One of the five pillars of Islam) the third thing Muslims must believe in is Judgement Day. Now any Muslim who wants to follow the right path would be fearful of that day and would try to do anything possible that they enter paradise. Harming, killing or just putting fear into another Muslim whether male or female is condemned by Islam.
Some hadiths show that any form of abuse is not allowed in Islam against other Muslims. These hadiths are some of “The Virtues of Forty Ahadith.” “It is unlawful for a Muslim to frighten another”. (Abu Dawood). From this hadith it is obvious it is wrong to scare another Muslim never mind physically abusing them. “Whosoever raises a weapon on any of us is not one of us.”