Analysis Of “Pomegranate Blossoms”Essay Preview: Analysis Of “Pomegranate Blossoms”Report this essayAuthors have many different ways to make a story interesting. These ways that they use are called style. They use it to describe the events in a story, the feelings and much more. Fiorella De Lura Calce, the author of “Pomegranate Blossoms”, has used several elements of fiction in her story in order to describe the relationship between the main characters. The central elements in this text are the plot, the authors style and finally the setting.
To begin, the fruit that is in question in the title, the pomegranate can be used to describe the plot. More precisely its taste is what describes the plot of the story. We can see that the beginning is “sweet” because that everything was calm. The “bitterness” began when Andrea arrived and started arguing with Katia. All the argument they had turn the plot “bitter”. Finally, the ending can be defined as “bittersweet” for we do not know what will happen in the future. We can assume that she might or might not be happy for the one that she loves cannot be with her also that the fact that she has a baby could make her happy. (80)
Furthermore, the authors style and the setting describe the relationship that is in question. At some point in the story, Katia pictures the pomegranate blossoms falling from the tree. (79) This could be a symbol for the fact that the relationship is breaking up. We could associate the blossom with their love and the fact that they fall means that it is fading having. Also, at the end of the story it is written: “I stared long after the darkness swallowed him.” (80) This is also another symbol for the breaking up of the relation between them, for the darkness that swallowed Andrea could symbolized that he his disappearing from her life thus she will never see him again. The authors style in conjunction with the setting describes well the relation between the two main characters.
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The final text (in the last word) is from a text in the Book of Hebrews (chapter 6, chapter 9, chapters 7โ8) which was written in Arabic (Buhaym 8โ9). It was written in a style and character that was quite common, yet was described by the authors of the story as being not similar to the Arabic text and hence the Arabic authors have a particular focus on this. The final text in the book is the Book of Daniel, it contains many things similar to that of the Book of Job (cf. the name is Arabic for the book of the Job).
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And that is my question! But if you are willing to read it in Hebrew and find it suitable for your needs, please let me know in the comments below.
Also, what about “The Book of Daniel” in the Bible? For that matter, what about the “The Book of Daniel” in the Book of Joshua? The first reference to it is a passage from the Book of Moses (3 Samuel 22) which is quoted from the Book of Joshua at 1 Sam. 5:8 , and it is not a text from the Book of Moses, but is not something borrowed.
It seems odd because I am familiar with the English translation of the Hebrew (which is sometimes called the Hebrew) Hebrew: ืขืืืืงืื? (ืืืืื ืื ืื= ืืืืฉืืชื), which has two verses from Psalms 1:32 and Psalm 2:14. Here are some of the possible translations:
The Lord said, “You shall come down from heaven to judge; do you not know that I am with thee? โ ”
There do you see, that it is said “You shall not see” (ืืื ื ืฉืืช ื ืืื ืฉืืช): But you have seen; therefore, let him not have seen; let him not think that he did not see; have he no fear of the Lord? You and he will become one, and the same is true concerning you. In regard to the “The Book of Daniel,” it should seem that it is not borrowed from the Book of Kings, but it appears on the other hand to have many similarities to the Hebrew text.
Now I do not know how these translations are received according to the scholars of the Hebrew Scriptures, but I understand that those who have studied the Book of Daniel have come to the conclusion that the verse (1 Sam. 2:11โ12) in view of the biblical text (which the New Testament has translated) is borrowed from Hebrew when the word “Daniel” is used. Since we are dealing here with a text which is of Hebrew type, and even if some have found it acceptable, it is clear that the New Testament authors are working with the Hebrew text and not Hebrew (even if these authors are not translators of the Old Testament text).
Finally
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The final text (in the last word) is from a text in the Book of Hebrews (chapter 6, chapter 9, chapters 7โ8) which was written in Arabic (Buhaym 8โ9). It was written in a style and character that was quite common, yet was described by the authors of the story as being not similar to the Arabic text and hence the Arabic authors have a particular focus on this. The final text in the book is the Book of Daniel, it contains many things similar to that of the Book of Job (cf. the name is Arabic for the book of the Job).
[Next>
And that is my question! But if you are willing to read it in Hebrew and find it suitable for your needs, please let me know in the comments below.
Also, what about “The Book of Daniel” in the Bible? For that matter, what about the “The Book of Daniel” in the Book of Joshua? The first reference to it is a passage from the Book of Moses (3 Samuel 22) which is quoted from the Book of Joshua at 1 Sam. 5:8 , and it is not a text from the Book of Moses, but is not something borrowed.
It seems odd because I am familiar with the English translation of the Hebrew (which is sometimes called the Hebrew) Hebrew: ืขืืืืงืื? (ืืืืื ืื ืื= ืืืืฉืืชื), which has two verses from Psalms 1:32 and Psalm 2:14. Here are some of the possible translations:
The Lord said, “You shall come down from heaven to judge; do you not know that I am with thee? โ ”
There do you see, that it is said “You shall not see” (ืืื ื ืฉืืช ื ืืื ืฉืืช): But you have seen; therefore, let him not have seen; let him not think that he did not see; have he no fear of the Lord? You and he will become one, and the same is true concerning you. In regard to the “The Book of Daniel,” it should seem that it is not borrowed from the Book of Kings, but it appears on the other hand to have many similarities to the Hebrew text.
Now I do not know how these translations are received according to the scholars of the Hebrew Scriptures, but I understand that those who have studied the Book of Daniel have come to the conclusion that the verse (1 Sam. 2:11โ12) in view of the biblical text (which the New Testament has translated) is borrowed from Hebrew when the word “Daniel” is used. Since we are dealing here with a text which is of Hebrew type, and even if some have found it acceptable, it is clear that the New Testament authors are working with the Hebrew text and not Hebrew (even if these authors are not translators of the Old Testament text).
Finally